The International Software Testing Qualifications Board (ISTQB) is a software testing qualification certification organization that operates internationally. Founded in Edinburgh in November 2002, ISTQB is a non-profit association legally registered in Belgium.

ISTQB Certified Tester is a standardized qualification for software testers and the certification is offered by the ISTQB. The qualifications are based on a syllabus, and there is a hierarchy of qualifications and guidelines for accreditation and examination. The ISTQB is a software testing qualification certification organization having over 500,000 certifications issued; the ISTQB consists of 57-member boards worldwide representing 81 countries

ISTQB Vision

To continually improve and advance the software testing profession by:

Defining and maintaining a Body of Knowledge which allows testers to be certified based on best practices, connecting the international software testing community, and encouraging research.

Product Portfolio

The evolutionary road-map for the ISTQB Product Portfolio is summarized in the picture below. The existing Foundation, Advanced and Expert modules are grouped under the Core stream. Modules that are more specific in their nature, are served under the Specialist stream. Agile methodology related syllabi are grouped under a dedicated Agile stream.

Current ISTQB product portfolio follows a Matrix approach characterized by

  • Levels, that identify progressively increasing learning objectives
    • Foundation
    • Advanced
    • Expert
  • Streams, that identify clusters of certification modules:
    • Core
    • Agile
    • Specialist
Agile Core Specialist
Expert X
Advanced X X X
Foundation X X X

ISTQB streams focus on:

  • Core – these modules correspond to the “historical” ISTQB certifications and so they:
    • Cover software testing topic in a breadth-first, broad, horizontal way,
    • Are valid for any technology/ methodology/ application domain
    • Allow for a common understanding
  • Agile – these modules address testing practices specifically for the Agile SDLC
  • Specialist – these modules are new in the ISTQB product portfolio and address specific topics in a vertical way:
    • They can address specific quality characteristics (e.g.: Usability; Security; Performance; etc.)
    • They can address technologies that involve specific test approaches (e.g.: model based testing; mobile testing; etc.)
    • They can also be related to specific test activities (e.g.: test automation; test metrics management; etc.)

ISTQB is the best testing certification due to :

  • This an online testing certification which can be taken up by anyone from IT or from a non-IT field.
  • The certification has 3 levels and ISTQB Foundation Level certification does not require any work experience.
  • This software testing certification is the most widely recognized and fastest-growing software test certification in the world.
  • ISTQB certification makes you eligible to get testing job anywhere in this world unlikely to the other certifications which are recognized country wise.
  • ISTQB certification will not expire like the CSTP certification which is valid only for three years and after that, testers need to qualify again to keep their certification.

The ISTQB certification is divided into 3 levels:

  • Foundation level certification
  • Advance level certification
  • Expert level certification
Foundation level certification

The Foundation Certification is the entry-level certification, de-signed for people who are fresher and for experienced practitioners wishing to start moving up the ladder of ISTQB certifications. The goals of the Foundation Certification are to ensure a broad under-standing of the fundamental best practices and key concepts in software testing, and to provide a foundation for professional growth. The syllabus covers six main topics: fundamentals of testing; testing in the software lifecycle; static techniques like reviews; behavioral (black-box) and structural (white-box) test design; test management and testing tools.

Advance level certification

The Advanced Certification is the mid-level certification, designed for those with at least five years’ experience as testers. The goals of the Advanced Certification are to ensure an understanding of advanced best practices and key concepts in software testing amongst committed test professionals, and to support on-going professional growth. The syllabus is divided into three main areas: advanced behavioral or black box testing and testing standards for business-oriented testers; test automation and advanced structural or white box testing for technically-oriented testers and programmers; and, sophisticated test management concepts for managers.

Expert level certification

The Expert Certification is for leaders of the field of software testing, those with eight or more years of experience. The goals of the Expert Certification are to ensure consistent understanding and execution of proven cutting-edge techniques by seasoned test professionals, and to lead the software testing profession. Since experts tend to specialize, we will offer various expert syllabi addressing topics like test process improvement, test automation, test management, and industry- specific test techniques.

ISTQB Certified Tester program

The ISTQB Certified Tester program provides certification for software testers internationally. There are currently two levels of certification: The Foundation Level and the Advanced Level certificates. For both levels, international working parties develop and maintain internationally uniform curricula and exams. One of the core principles of the program is a strict separation between the administration of exams and the training to those who would like to prepare for the exam in ISTQB compliant courses.

Type of certifications offered by ISTQB
Foundation CTFL Advanced CTAL
Eligibility None but 6 months professional testing experience is desirable Candidates must hold the Foundation Certificate
Sub Exams None
  • Technical Test Analyst
  • Test Analyst
  • Test Manager

There is a separate paper for each sub-level. Candidates must pass all of the above 3 exams to get “Advance Level” certificate

No. Of Questions 40 65
Pass Percentage 65% 65%
Exam Duration 60 minutes 180 minutes

Some of the benefits / advantages of ISTQB software testing certification are:

  • The questions are multiple choice, practical in nature and intuitive which makes the exam easier than others.
  • There is no minimum qualification or experience needed to take the Foundation Level exam
  • Individuals from IT and non-IT field can take up this certification
  • This means that you can take up the exam when you are in college, in between jobs or trying to switch from another field into Testing.
  • Having a software testing certificate like ISTQB demonstrates mastery of the best practices and key concepts in the field of Software Testing. This can help advance your career and differentiates you from the rest of the people vying for a position.
  • This certification also shows your manager / interviewer that you have made a conscious effort to improve your expertise in Testing
  • ISTQB certification is comparatively less expensive than other certifications
  • You do not need to attend a separate software testing course or QA training in order to take up the ISTQB certification. The complete QA training material you need to successfully pass this online testing certification is available on our site for free.
ISTQB Questions for practice

If you are preparing for ISTQB foundation level certification exam then here are some sample question papers to make your preparation little easier.

The below set contains 100 questions and answers are provided at the end of the question set.

    1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
      • Each test stage has a different purpose.
      • It is easier to manage testing in stages.
      • We can run different tests in different environments.
      • The more stages we have, the better the testing.
    2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
      • Regression testing
      • Integration testing
      • System testing
      • User acceptance testing
    3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
      • A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
      • A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
      • A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
      • A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
    4. Which of the following requirements is testable?
      • The system shall be user friendly.
      • The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
      • The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
      • The system shall be built to be portable.
    5. Analise the following highly simplified procedure:

      Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”

      IF the customer wants ‘return’

      Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”

      IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’

      Say: “That will be £11:20”


      Say: “That will be £19:50”



      Say: “That will be £9:75”


Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given.

    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
    • 6
  1. Error guessing:
    • supplements formal test design techniques.
    • can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
    • is only performed in user acceptance testing.
    • is not repeatable and should not be used.
  2. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
    • Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
    • A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
    • A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
    • Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
  3. In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to:
    • find as many faults as possible.
    • test high risk areas.
    • obtain good test coverage.
    • test whatever is easiest to test.
  4. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?

    v – test control

    w – test monitoring

    x – test estimation

    y – incident management

    z – configuration control

    1 – calculation of required test resources

    2 – maintenance of record of test results

    3 – re-allocation of resources when tests overrun

    4 – report on deviation from test plan

    5 – tracking of anomalous test results

    • v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
    • v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
    • v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
    • v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
  5. Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
    • System tests are often performed by independent teams.
    • Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
    • Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
    • End-users should be involved in system tests.
  6. Which of the following is false?
    • Incidents should always be fixed.
    • An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
    • Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
    • An incident can be raised against documentation.
  7. Enough testing has been performed when:
    • time runs out.
    • the required level of confidence has been achieved.
    • no more faults are found.
    • the users won’t find any serious faults.
  8. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
    • Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
    • Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
    • Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
    • Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
  9. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
    • syntax testing
    • equivalence partitioning
    • stress testing
    • modified condition/decision coverage
  10. Which of the following is false?
    • In a system two different failures may have different severities.
    • A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
    • A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
    • Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
  11. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
    • They are used to support multi-user testing.
    • They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
    • They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
    • They capture aspects of user behavior.
  12. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
    • Metrics from previous similar projects
    • Discussions with the development team
    • Time allocated for regression testing
    • a & b
  13. Which of the following is true of the V-model?
    • It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
    • It only models the testing phase.
    • It specifies the test techniques to be used.
    • It includes the verification of designs.
  14. The oracle assumption:
    • is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
    • is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
    • is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
    • is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
  15. Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?
    • They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
    • They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
    • Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
    • Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
  16. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
    • To find faults in the software.
    • To assess whether the software is ready for release.
    • To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
    • To prove that the software is correct.
  17. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
    • Boundary value analysis
    • Usability testing
    • Performance testing
    • Security testing
  18. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
    • Features to be tested
    • Incident reports
    • Risks
    • Schedule
  19. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
    • Test management
    • Test design
    • Test execution
    • Test planning
  20. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
    • Statement testing
    • Path testing
    • Data flow testing
    • State transition testing
  21. Data flow analysis studies:
    • possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
    • the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
    • the use of data on paths through the code.
    • the intrinsic complexity of the code.
  22. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

    An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%

    The next £28000 is taxed at 22%

    Any further amount is taxed at 40%

    To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

    • £1500
    • £32001
    • £33501
    • £28000
  23. An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
    • enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
    • can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
    • can be performed by inexperienced staff.
    • are cheap to perform.
  24. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
    • Actual results
    • Program specification
    • User requirements
    • System specification
  25. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
    • An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
    • An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
    • Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
    • A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
  26. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
    • It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
    • It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
    • It reduces defect multiplication.
    • It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
  27. Integration testing in the small:
    • tests the individual components that have been developed.
    • tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
    • only uses components that form part of the live system.
    • tests interfaces to other systems.
  28. Static analysis is best described as:
    • the analysis of batch programs.
    • the reviewing of test plans.
    • the analysis of program code.
    • the use of black box testing.
  29. Alpha testing is:
    • post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
    • the first testing that is performed.
    • pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
    • pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
  30. A failure is:
    • found in the software; the result of an error.
    • departure from specified behavior.
    • an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
    • a human action that produces an incorrect result.
  31. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

    An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%

    The next £28000 is taxed at 22%

    Any further amount is taxed at 40%

    Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

    • £4800; £14000; £28000
    • £5200; £5500; £28000
    • £28001; £32000; £35000
    • £5800; £28000; £32000
  32. The most important thing about early test design is that it:
    • makes test preparation easier.
    • means inspections are not required.
    • can prevent fault multiplication.
    • will find all faults.
  33. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
    • Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
    • Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
    • Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
    • Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
  34. Test cases are designed during:
    • test recording.
    • test planning.
    • test configuration.
    • test specification.
  35. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
    • linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
    • facilities to compare test results with expected results.
    • the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
    • restricted access to the source code library.
  36. A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:
    • an error
    • a fault
    • a failure
    • a defect
  37. Regression testing should be performed:

    v) every week

    w) after the software has changed

    x) as often as possible

    y) when the environment has changed

    z) when the project manager says

    • v & w are true, x, y & z are false
    • w, x & y are true, v & z are false
    • w & y are true, v, x & z are false
    • w is true, v, x, y & z are false
  38. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except
    • test items
    • test deliverables
    • test tasks
    • test specifications
  39. When should testing be stopped?
    • when all the planned tests have been run
    • when time has run out
    • when all faults have been fixed correctly
    • it depends on the risks for the system being tested
  40. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?
    • 1000, 50000, 99999
    • 9999, 50000, 100000
    • 10000, 50000, 99999
    • 10000, 99999, 100000
  41. Consider the following statements about early test design:
    1. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
    2. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
    3. early test design can find faults
    4. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
    5. early test design normally takes more effort
    • i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
    • iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
    • i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
    • i& ii are true; iii, iv & v are false
  42. Non-functional system testing includes:
    • testing to see where the system does not function correctly
    • testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
    • testing a system function using only the software required for that function
    • testing for functions that should not exist
  43. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
    • auditing conformance to ISO 9000
    • status accounting of configuration items
    • identification of test versions
    • controlled library access
  44. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
    • to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
    • to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
    • to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
    • to specify how the software should be divided into modules
  45. What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
    • to know when a specific test has finished its execution
    • to ensure that the test case specification is complete
    • to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
    • to determine when to stop testing
  46. Consider the following statements:
    1. an incident may be closed without being fixed.
    2. incidents may not be raised against documentation.
    3. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
    4. the incident record does not include information on test environments.
    • ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
    • i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
    • i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
    • i and ii are true, iii and iv are false
  47. Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?

    Read p

    Read q

    IF p+q> 100 THEN

    Print “Large”


    IF p > 50 THEN

    Print “p Large”


    • 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    • 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    • 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    • 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
  48. Consider the following statements:
    1. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
    2. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
    3. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
    4. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
    5. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
    • ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
    • i& v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
    • ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
    • ii, iii & iv are True; i& v are False
  49. Functional system testing is:
    • testing that the system functions with other systems
    • testing that the components that comprise the system function together
    • testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
    • testing the system performs functions within specified response times
  50. Incidents would not be raised against:
    • requirements
    • documentation
    • test cases
    • improvements suggested by users
  51. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
    • operating systems
    • test documentation
    • live data
    • user requirement documents
  52. Maintenance testing is:
    • updating tests when the software has changed
    • testing a released system that has been changed
    • testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
    • testing to maintain business advantage
  53. What can static analysis NOT find?
    • the use of a variable before it has been defined
    • unreachable (“dead”) code
    • memory leaks
    • array bound violations
  54. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
    • state transition testing
    • LCSAJ
    • syntax testing
    • boundary value analysis
  55. Beta testing is:
    • performed by customers at their own site
    • performed by customers at the software developer’s site
    • performed by an Independent Test Team
    • performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
  56. Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by an independent system test team?
    1. static analysis
    2. performance testing
    3. test management
    4. dynamic analysis
    • developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
    • developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
    • developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
    • developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii
  57. The main focus of acceptance testing is:
    • finding faults in the system
    • ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
    • testing the system with other systems
    • testing from a business perspective
  58. Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
    • black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
    • white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
    • cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
    • black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
  59. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
    • inspection is the most formal review process
    • inspections should be led by a trained leader
    • managers can perform inspections on management documents
    • inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
  60. A typical commercial test execution tool would able to perform all the following,EXCEPT:
    • calculating expected outputs
    • comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
    • recording test inputs
    • reading test values from a data file
  61. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
    • re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects
    • re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
    • re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
    • re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers
  62. Expected results are:
    • only important in system testing
    • only used in component testing
    • most useful when specified in advance
    • derived from the code
  63. What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
    • walkthrough
    • inspection
    • management review
    • post project review
  64. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
    • component testing
    • non-functional system testing
    • user acceptance testing
    • maintenance testing
  65. What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
    • setting up forms and databases
    • analyzing metrics and improving processes
    • writing the documents to be inspected
    • time spent on the document outside the meeting
  66. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
    • to find faults in the software
    • to prove that the software has no faults
    • to give confidence in the software
    • to find performance problems
  67. Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:
      1. led by the author
      2. undocumented
      3. no management participation
      4. led by a moderator or leader
      5. uses entry and exit criteria

    s) inspection

    t) peer review

    u) informal review

    v) walkthrough

    • s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
    • s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
    • s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
    • s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3
  68. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
    • business process-based testing
    • performance, load and stress testing
    • usability testing
    • top-down integration testing
  69. Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
    • expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
    • expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
    • expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
    • expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
  70. The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
    • ISO/IEC 12207
    • BS 7925-1
    • ANSI/IEEE 829
    • ANSI/IEEE 729
  71. The cost of fixing a fault:
    • is not important
    • increases the later a fault is found
    • decreases the later a fault is found
    • can never be determined
  72. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?
    • what is not to be tested
    • test environment properties
    • quality plans
    • schedules and deadlines
  73. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
    • no, because they apply to development documentation
    • no, because they are normally applied before testing
    • yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
    • yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
  74. Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
    • measuring response times
    • recovery testing
    • simulating many users
    • generating many transactions
  75. Error guessing is best used:
    • after more formal techniques have been applied
    • as the first approach to deriving test cases
    • by inexperienced testers
    • after the system has gone live
  76. An incident logging system
    • only records defects
    • is of limited value
    • is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
    • should be used only by the test team.
  77. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:
    • reducing test time
    • no change
    • increasing test time
    • can’t say
  78. Coverage measurement
    • is nothing to do with testing
    • is a partial measure of test thoroughness
    • branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
    • can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
  79. When should you stop testing?
    • when time for testing has run out.
    • when all planned tests have been run
    • when the test completion criteria have been met
    • when no faults have been found by the tests run
  80. Which of the following is true?
    • Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
    • if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
    • the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
    • the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
  81. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
    • how well you know a particular technique
    • the objective of the test
    • how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
    • whether there is a tool to support the technique
  82. If the pseudo code below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
    1. If x=3 then
    2. Display_messageX;
    3. If y=2 then
    4. Display_messageY;
    5. Else
    6. Display_messageZ;
    7. Else
    8. Display_messageZ;
    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
  83. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?
    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
  84. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
    • State-Transition
    • Usability
    • Performance
    • Security
  85. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
    • State analysis
    • Coverage analysis
    • Dynamic analysis
    • Memory analysis
  86. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
    • IEEE829
    • IEEE610
    • BS7925-1
    • BS7925-2
  87. which of the following is the component test standard?
    • IEEE 829
    • IEEE 610
    • BS7925-1
    • BS7925-2
  88. which of the following statements are true?
    • Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
    • Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
    • Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
    • Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
  89. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
    • Design based
    • Big-bang
    • Bottom-up
    • Top-down
  90. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
    • statement testing
    • equivalence partitioning
    • error- guessing
    • usability testing
  91. A program with high cyclometer complexity is almost likely to be:
    • Large
    • Small
    • Difficult to write
    • Difficult to test
  92. Which of the following is a static test?
    • code inspection
    • coverage analysis
    • usability assessment
    • installation test
  93. Which of the following is the odd one out?
    • white box
    • glass box
    • structural
    • functional
  94. A program validates a numeric field as follows:

    Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected

    Which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?

    • 10,11,21
    • 3,20,21
    • 3,10,22
    • 10,21,22
  95. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
    • 9,10,11,22
    • 9,10,21,22
    • 10,11,21,22
    • 10,11,20,21

The answers of the above questions are as follow:

  1. A
  2. A
  3. D
  4. C
  5. A
  6. A
  7. C
  8. B
  9. C
  10. D
  11. A
  12. B
  13. A
  14. C
  15. B
  16. B
  17. D
  18. D
  19. B
  20. A
  21. D
  22. A
  23. B
  24. C
  25. D
  26. C
  27. C
  28. A
  29. C
  30. D
  31. C
  32. B
  33. C
  34. C
  35. B
  36. D
  37. C
  38. D
  39. D
  40. B
  41. C
  42. C
  43. D
  44. D
  45. C
  46. A
  47. B
  48. A
  49. C
  50. D
  51. B
  52. B
  53. D
  54. C
  55. D
  56. C
  57. B
  58. C
  59. B
  60. A
  61. A
  62. D
  63. A
  64. D
  65. A
  66. A
  67. C
  68. B
  69. D
  70. C
  71. B
  72. A
  73. D
  74. A
  75. B
  76. B
  77. C
  78. C
  79. B
  80. A
  81. C
  82. A
  83. B
  84. C
  85. B
  86. B
  87. C
  88. C
  89. A
  90. C
  91. B
  92. D
  93. C
  94. A
  95. B
  96. D
  97. A
  98. D
  99. C
  100. B

The points below summarize the topics as discussed:

  • ISTQB is software testing qualification certification non-profit organization that operates internationally.
  • ISTQB Certified Tester is a standardized qualification for software testers and the certification is offered by the ISTQB.
  • Foundation level certification, Advance level certification and Expert level certification are three levels of certification offered by ISTBQ.
  • ISTQB Certified Tester program provides certification for software testers internationally.
  • There are lot of features that makes ISTQB best than rest of others.

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